2007-03-18 17:00:03 · 26 answers · asked by expectingagain 1 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
Dr was wrong. It also happen with mine too. And 3 kids later, they can be wrong. Congrats and good luck
2007-03-18 17:06:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
I understand that his doctor was just saying that your husband was not fertile not sterile. Remember that "not fertile" and sterile are different.
Not fertile means his semen contains only fewer spermcells. It might also be possible that your husband's spermcell is not really active, or should I say the sperms are weak and can't swim effectively from your vagina to the uterus through the cervix.
On the other hand, Sterile is the state where your husband's sperms are dead or might be too weak to fertilized your egg.
So, if you are sure that it's your husband whom you engaged with sexual intercourse alone, then most probably that one of your husbands sperms was too active compared to the most of them and had successfully fertilized your egg... so you got pregnant.
2007-03-18 17:15:14 · answer #2 · answered by SELaplana 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well not all doctors are right about everything. further more, there are things that improve fertility. Nature has a way of figuring these things out. I have known of other people who were told they were infertile and then became pregnant by accident.
2007-03-18 17:16:26 · answer #3 · answered by prancingmonkey 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything is possible! There's nothing wrong with my best friend and her husband physically, and no matter how many fertility treatments they've been through, they STILL can't get pregnant after four years. So, truly, anything is possible.
2007-03-18 17:04:37 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What did the doc actually tell you?
Saying he "wasn't fertile" could mean a whole bunch of things - did they actually say he was STERILE??
Only STERILE means that he is totally incapable of fathering a child. Which means be produces no sperm. None. Nada. Zip.
"Not fertile" could just mean he has a low sperm count, which doesn't necessarily mean he is totally incapable of fatehring a child.
2007-03-21 03:48:10 · answer #5 · answered by TaniaP 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the reason that your husband was disgnosed as "infertile" and how they tested it.
Sometime people are sub-fertile or are fertility challenged but that does not mean they are actually infertile.
If you can give me more information as to exactly what he was disgnosed with and what tests they did I can maybe give you more information.
Fertility medicine is my area of nursing specialty.
2007-03-18 17:28:26 · answer #6 · answered by SydneyMum101 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The doctor was wrong. It happens. Sometimes men don't produce enough for them to say he's fertile. But only one sperm is enough!
2007-03-18 17:25:43 · answer #7 · answered by odd duck 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well obviously the Dr. was wrong. It DOES happen! I was told when i was 12 that i didnt ovulate and couldnt have kids.
....Im 35 1/2 weeks pregnant. lol
2007-03-18 17:29:35 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Doctors are just people too .... the mess up like the rest of us. Although I would suggest a second opinion ...lol
Congratulation on your pregnancy : )
2007-03-18 17:18:14 · answer #9 · answered by uncle louie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Congratulations!!
2007-03-18 17:15:14 · answer #10 · answered by ** ButterFlyAngel ** 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Either your husband's doctor is wrong or your husband isn't the father of your baby.
2007-03-18 17:26:28 · answer #11 · answered by Amanda B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋