2007-03-18
14:04:35
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8 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Psychology
# 2 ,child sexuality is hardly non existent.
2007-03-18
14:08:36 ·
update #1
Yes he was a cocaine addict which actually adds to the plausability of his being sexually abused; if I am correct a very high percantage of drug users suffered from sexual trauma.
2007-03-18
14:12:34 ·
update #2
monika, what do you mean?
2007-03-18
14:46:07 ·
update #3
There is no mention of that in Irving Stone's biography of Sigmund Freud, "Passions of the Mind".
2007-03-18 14:09:01
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Having read Freud somewhat extensively, I can safely say there's no real evidence in his writing that he was sexually abused. He spent enormous amounts of time talking to and analysing patients, and this is where he got his views on things such as sexuality. His theories don't seem to have anything to do with his own past or personal life.
His writing also isn't nearly as sexual as people think. He is most famous for his ideas about the castration complex, which is also probably his most flawed theory (and thus it became so notorious), but he wrote about many other topics, mostly non-sexual.
And drug use does not mean you've been sexually abused, especially if you're as intelligent and think things through as carefully as Freud...
2007-03-20 22:41:55
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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No. I think he was more sexually amused as a child. I suggest you use Yahoo Search and find out all there was to this cocaine addict's crazy life and how it shaped psychology!! You think I'm kidding but I'm not. Freud was a real kick in the shorts. @8-)
2007-03-18 21:10:30
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answer #3
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answered by Dovey 7
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Sometimes a cigar is just a cigar.
But, if he got the wrong kind of attention for his natural questions as a child, he may just have learned to use the subject to attract sensational atention as an adult.
Audrey Hepburn used to say;
"I don't care if you're the best-dressed or the worst-dressed, just be sure to get yourself on the front cover!"
2007-03-19 16:35:57
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answer #4
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answered by starryeyed 6
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I've often wondered about that--as Freud's psychoanalysis was almost entirely sex-related. This is something I doubt we would ever find in a biography or textbook--but it is something that is all too entirely possible. I'm going to do a search--if I find anything out, I'll be back.
2007-03-18 21:09:33
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answer #5
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answered by Holiday Magic 7
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Probably he seemed obsessed with the non-existant "child sexuality"
2007-03-18 21:07:40
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answer #6
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answered by ☺☻☺☻☺☻ 6
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Good question. Using his own methodology, one may think so.
2007-03-18 21:07:08
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answer #7
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answered by jimmyd 4
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I am not sure,but the way me talks about my Dad.Well,makes me feel dirty.
2007-03-18 21:39:02
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answer #8
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answered by Moanika 6
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