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2007-03-18 09:40:57 · 3 answers · asked by pat1165@swbell.net 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

Well there was no "Texas" in the 1500's, originally populated by indigenous peoples it was part of French then Spanish colonies. When Spain ceded Mexico Independence Texas became part of that. It remained part of Mexico until 1835 when the Republic of Texas was established.

2007-03-18 10:02:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anna Og 6 · 0 0

In general - your question is insipid at best.

2007-03-19 18:03:46 · answer #2 · answered by jim_elkins 5 · 0 0

Not much, come to think of it, not much up to now.

2007-03-18 09:51:39 · answer #3 · answered by bigjohn B 7 · 0 0

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