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15 answers

That is a very interesting question.

You see in Africa some blacks were kings and queens just like in other countries and if there were more blacks that were not uprooted from the land then a lot of us could possibly still over there due to the royalty of the families.

But to be honest there would still be a large number of us because we don;t all derive from Africa.

But to be honest how many whites would there be? Becasue we all know that whites were not the first people noted as being the first ones to habitate America as we all know it today.

2007-03-18 08:09:03 · answer #1 · answered by ltwatkins77 4 · 2 1

Hi Jonathon,
I am anti -racicist, and have lived & worked in many a foreign clime, but I see what you mean.
The old "slavery" thing is thankfuly an item of the past, It was appalling, and rightly condemmed to the history books.
We sometimes say, being a white Brit myself, that we have no problem with folks origonating from other places.
My wife is Rhodesian, and therefore my sons are of multi-racial descent.

My Dentist is as black as your hat, from Ghana, but a fine fellow, if a bit "heavy- handed". !

I hear that we may be looking at a Black possible USA president, again, fair play.

Slavery has come around to a sensible situation.
We would not have had all the wonderful music,
Religeon, & a whole bag full of talent without it.

Praise be !
And sorry on behalf of the Brits.

Bob.

2007-03-18 10:26:40 · answer #2 · answered by Bob the Boat 6 · 0 0

This depends upon your definition of 'black'.

The British empire included a number of lands populated by non whites, for example India, Ceylon and parts of Africa and the Americas. People from these areas would have come to the UK and USA as a result, albiet in smaller numbers.

The town I live in has significant populations many foreign nations, including India, Pakistan, Malaysia, China and EU states, as well as a few from Africa and the US.



We had a significant migration of people from East Africa in the last 40 years, as a result of the actions of Idi Amin, and from South Africa and Rhodesia following the political changes there.

2007-03-18 08:13:59 · answer #3 · answered by David P 7 · 1 0

USA probably a lot less

But since The Black population in Britain is not due to Slavery (I think!) it would be about the same.

2007-03-18 13:33:19 · answer #4 · answered by mixturenumber1 4 · 0 0

seeing as how USA and UK have both steered away from agriculture, the major cause of slavery, however there still is need for labor on farms in both countries. So there would probably be some Africans nativists in USA and UK but definitely treated more humanly and perhaps paid for their labor.

2007-03-18 08:05:33 · answer #5 · answered by Charle 1 · 0 1

I'm unsure about the USA , probably very few. In the UK , though almost as many as at present as most derive from the Indian sub continent and predominantly arrived in th e20th century

2007-03-18 08:12:33 · answer #6 · answered by keith d 1 · 0 1

In the UK it would not have made a massive difference because many come from empire countries in Africa.

The USA - probably not only much less numbers but the history would have been difference. The American civil war probably would not have happened.

2007-03-18 08:33:36 · answer #7 · answered by Freethinking Liberal 7 · 0 1

That's an interesting question. It's possible some Africans might have eventually immigrated to this country as other peoples have who are seeking refuge, but we wouldn't have had the millions in numbers.

Blacks were being enslaved in Africa, too, so for many of them, they went from one master on one continent to another.

2007-03-18 08:03:19 · answer #8 · answered by Veritas 7 · 1 0

Actually, the first slaves in America were brought by the Dutch in 1620. Many countries were using slaves, including some African tribes who were enslaving other tribes, but were eventually persuaded to sell to the white man for better profit. It is NOT all our fault. Even the Romans had slaves, and the Egyptians, and countless civilizations before them

2007-03-18 08:28:01 · answer #9 · answered by Duffer 6 · 1 1

may be zero may be a lot , but
1st put in the equation Spain , now i can tell you a lot or may be not, back then slavery was not a black race issue any " inferior ethnic group" qualified as slaves. blame the Spaniards for that they were one of the major slave trader on earth.

2007-03-18 08:33:50 · answer #10 · answered by mauripaladi 3 · 1 1

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