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george berkeley vs john locke?

2007-03-16 15:27:45 · 4 answers · asked by gian 1 in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

John Locke won by a technical ruling.

2007-03-16 18:08:09 · answer #1 · answered by Adam 4 · 0 0

John Locke is a philosophic realist— in oversimplified terms, external reality is antecedent to mental perception of reality; the mind is originally a tabula rasa (a blank sheet) and reality imprints itself in the mind through experience.

George Berkeley is a phlosophic realism — mind is necessary for reality. Does reality exist in the absence of someone with senses and a mind to experience it, or at least,m to sense it? Does a flower exist in a forest (or the forest itself exist) if no one is therre to see or smell it?

In these oversimplified terms, Berkeley has often been the butt of philosophical jokes. Examples: Samuel Johnson, who lived in the same period, said that he didn't know about flowers, but by George, if Berkeley stubbed his toe on a rock he'd bloody well know that in fact the rock existed (Johnson liked to jest, and it might have escaped him that in a sense he proved Berkeley's proposition: you know something exists if you are there to experience it). The 20th century Catholic theologian, Reginald Knox, wrote a witty poem that pointed out to Berkeley (who was also religious, both professionally — he was an Antlican Bishop — and personally) that of course God was always there to see the rose.

2007-03-16 15:39:27 · answer #2 · answered by silvcslt 4 · 0 0

I find Berkeley more plausible, since Locke is unable to explain why the primary qualities are necessary or how they interact with the secondary qualities that we perceive.

2016-03-29 02:18:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

John Locke in the 5th round. TKO.

2007-03-16 15:32:12 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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