I think that is dumb.I also heard you have to, have sold your home five years before you can go in. I'm asking for my aunt.
2007-03-16 08:33:29 · 11 answers · asked by Sugar 7 in Health ➔ General Health Care ➔ Other - General Health Care
Anyone can go to a nursing home. You are probably thinking about someone going on Medicaid and having the state pay for it. In order for a person to go onto Medicaid they can't have any assets. If your aunt is not married and owns a home the home will be sold to satisfy the cost of nursing home costs and when all of her assets are used up she will be eligible for Medicaid.
The best thing to do is check with your states "Department of Human Services" and find out the rules for your particular state... You may get some information about impoverishment off of the Internet by searching your states Department of Human Services....Good Luck...
2007-03-16 08:50:46 · answer #1 · answered by Ret68 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
These are true if she is going to get government assistance. The government wants her to use up her assets totally before they will help her. The five year rule is so that the house is not transferred just to circumvent the rules. Good Luck with your aunt, it is sad when things like this happen and frustrating to deal with all the legal hassles.
2007-03-16 15:44:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think it probably depends on the situation. It may be a restriction based on the health insurance provider. Possibly some would require a person who owns a home to get in home care.
My Grandmother was in a nursing home for about 5 months while she still owned her home.
2007-03-16 15:44:22 · answer #3 · answered by Tim F 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If your aunt is looking for Meicaid to pay for her stay in the nursing home, she will need to spend down her assets. However, if your aunt is looking to stay in the "private pay" section of a nursing home, she can have as many assets as she wants.
2007-03-16 16:04:02 · answer #4 · answered by dominica h 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The upside of retirement communities is if you get in and the income dries up, they let you stay. If your condition deteriorates, they change the accomodation of services. The alternative might be to take out a reverse mortage on her equity and you offer live-in assistance.
2007-03-16 15:44:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you need the care subsidezed/paid for by the government - I'm sure there are restrictions as to who can have it paid for.
but if you are looking to pay for care in a nursing home, you need only find a place with an opening that you can afford.
2007-03-16 15:38:25 · answer #6 · answered by imnotachickenyoureaturkey 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on may factors - Medicaid? Spouse? I suggest talking to a professional regarding your circumstances.
2007-03-16 15:45:03 · answer #7 · answered by greid13 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes shes right your liable up to 5 years prior sale of procedes before the state starts paying....
2007-03-16 15:38:06 · answer #8 · answered by tomtoride 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if you expect the state to pay for it
2007-03-16 15:36:42 · answer #9 · answered by Experto Credo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you are private pay, it doesn't matter what you own. If you have medicare, there are restrictions like that.
2007-03-16 15:43:14 · answer #10 · answered by dragonkisses 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋