I say 1/16, since all the number devide by 4 to give the next #. Thus, 1/4 divided by 4 makes it 1/16.
2007-03-16 04:18:15 · 18 answers · asked by sun123 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
I think you're right
2007-03-16 04:25:55 · answer #1 · answered by mikehunt29 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1/16
2007-03-16 05:23:11 · answer #2 · answered by jaybee 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/16
2007-03-16 04:59:56 · answer #3 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Correct. Another way to look at is it
4^3 (4 to the 3rd power) = 64
4^2 (4 squared) = 16
4^1 = 4
4^0 = 1 (Any number to the 0 power is 1)
4^-1 = 1/4 (-1 means the inverse of a number)
4^-2 =1/16 (the square of 1/4)
2007-03-16 04:30:12 · answer #4 · answered by John H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/16
2007-03-16 04:22:49 · answer #5 · answered by Orientalgenius 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. 1/16 is next.
2007-03-16 04:28:49 · answer #6 · answered by John S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
(1/4)^n
as n goes from --3 to 2
(1/4)^-3 = 64
(1/4)^-2 = 16
(1/4)^-1 = 4
(1/4)^0 = 1
(1/4)^1 = 1/4
(1/4)^2 = 1/16 ****
2007-03-16 04:30:34 · answer #7 · answered by Brian D 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is right 1/16
2007-03-16 04:25:47 · answer #8 · answered by raheleh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what you said is absolutly right divide by 4 you get 1/16
2007-03-16 04:25:03 · answer #9 · answered by emy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yep 1/16
2007-03-16 04:26:36 · answer #10 · answered by Indiana Frenchman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Correct
2007-03-16 04:21:52 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋