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Excluding the factor of race white woman claimed they have been a minority because they did not have the right to vote until 1900's. Very few of them served in high political positions and economic positions. But then again I think there were areas where they got preferential treatment. For one women have never been included in any military draft. Two it has been proven by many prosecutors and judges that women are less likely than men to be sentenced to death and sentenced as harshly for the same crime under the same circumstances. Three men tended to have more pressure on them to find a job to support their family and kids in an area where workforce jobs did not have much safety and included long areas. So when you look at it is it fair to complain white woman as a minority to blacks when they received preferential treatment in some areas and this group did not.

2007-03-16 02:16:22 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Gender Studies

10 answers

Lui . . . I had to take exception to your statement "And are they saying that they're equal to black women who had to endure slavery?" Lui, NO ONE ALIVE TODAY ENDURED THAT SLAVERY! I don't care WHAT your distant ancestors had to put up with when it comes to making policy decisions . . . the fact is that YOU did not have to put up with it. The so-called "minorities" have every single opportunity that we have that the government can possibly offer them without being unfair to everyone else. Oh . . . and even though I'm not the one you were asking that question of, the answer is "yes." Have a nice day!

2007-03-16 03:49:26 · answer #1 · answered by anonymous 7 · 1 1

White women were and are the major beneficiaries of affirmitive action. Employers can get away with not hiring visible minorities if they have the option of hiring white women. Now that they have achieved parity with white men, most white women oppose affirmitive action because they do not want other visible minorities to become their equals. Hence in states ranging from Washington to Michigan white women vote against affirmitive action. And by the way most of the women who are in engineering are of Asian origin.

2016-03-29 01:35:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

While I do agree that white women have had to fight for their rights that does not qualify them as a minority. If you look up minority in the dictionary it says: "the smaller part or number; a number, part, or amount forming less than half of the whole." On average there is usually one man for every woman in western civilization so white women are not a minority, especially with the fact that there are more whites in our society than other groups. The most I would say is maybe they need to find a better word to describe themselves and their struggles.

2007-03-16 02:36:18 · answer #3 · answered by Marlo J 2 · 1 3

Believe it or not, women were actually allowed to vote before the 1800s, but they had to own land and be head of the household--a widow or single woman was considered head of the household (I know this from having looked at census records). A man who did not own land could not vote. A widow or single woman who was head of the household and owned property could vote.

It used to be that votes went by household instead of individual. After all, the family is a UNIT.

White women can hardly be considered a MINORITY, given that there are more women in the world than men overall. Women, being the fairer sex, have always been given preferential treatment one way or another--and sadly some women consider it to be oppressive somehow.

2007-03-16 02:28:20 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 6 3

Women are a minority in no sense of the word. And the whole culture of viewing this group or that as a victim group is unhealthy. It only raises resentment because of the ham handed way reverse discrimination is used to "balance the books."

2007-03-16 02:25:00 · answer #5 · answered by wexfordpress 2 · 5 1

I think white women can only be a minority if they're living in a city where they're technically a minority. Otherwise they're not.

The same goes for black people though, but if they're in a place that's predominately black then they're the majority.

The minority and majority cannot be calculated country-wide, as it's too dispersed.

Also, white women's treatment is all over the board. And are they saying that they're equal to black women who had to endure slavery?

This whole thing is right silly if you ask me. People just wanting pity it seems. But crying victim doesn't give you equality, it's admitting you're less than someone, and that **** ain't right nowadays.

2007-03-16 02:27:46 · answer #6 · answered by Luis 6 · 5 3

Women were much better treated than blacks. I don't see how they could still be considered a minority group.

2007-03-16 02:25:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 6 3

White women are the majority of the minority groups in the US society. That alone is contradicting but if you want to dichotomize women, white women are the elite group.

2007-03-16 02:25:30 · answer #8 · answered by JAQUELINE Z 2 · 1 6

That's a good chat up line

2007-03-16 02:19:53 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

No they can't.

2007-03-16 07:18:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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