x^2 -x^2=x^2-x^2
taking x common from LHS and applying formula on RHS i.e. (a-b)(a+b)
x(x-x)=(x-x)(x+x)
lets cut (x-x) on both sides
x=(x+x)
1x=2x
lets cut x on both sides
1=2
2007-03-15 22:58:04 · 5 answers · asked by kapil g 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Congratulations, your division by zero is even more obvious than with most "proofs" of this type (x-x=0, just in case you really don't know). Here's an even faster "proof":
1*0=2*0
Therefore, 1=2
Don't repeat old fallacies, okay?
2007-03-15 23:04:35 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No magic at all. On both sides of your equation you have (x-x) times something. (x-x) equals zero and anything times "0" equals zero so, in your equation 1x=2x since both 1 and 2 are multiplied by zero.
2007-03-16 00:18:36 · answer #2 · answered by david37863 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Erm no.. It's mathematics. LOL.
2007-03-15 23:06:36 · answer #3 · answered by Nonsensical 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's called screwed up Algebra... welcome to my world
2007-03-15 23:01:15 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
who is u maths teacher???????????????????
2007-03-15 23:07:01 · answer #5 · answered by insane 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋