Since thats who is ultimately effected the most?
2007-03-15 09:14:58 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
why isn't it ever about the sperm donor's responsibility and morals? he doesn't want to keep his penis in his pants, doesn't want to wear a rubber and his voice isn't raised in demand for a male birth control pill. he can take pills to keep his penis hard long past his sexual prime yet our "moral" society doesn't require him to get a vasectomy in order to have his prescription filled despite the fact that his old shabby sperm causes birth defects.
for the most part it's only those who can sit in smug security who pass dire judgment and demand government regulations on a woman's womb, clueless men and moralizing self righteous women who don't live constantly on the edge of poverty.
PS and ya know? it's the same smugly secure people who complain the loudest about their taxes going to social programs that support those babies they insist should be born into poverty.
2007-03-15 09:26:49 · answer #1 · answered by nebtet 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually, it is the woman that is effected most. She's the one that has to make the decision and live with it whether she has an abortion or not. It will effect her life and relationships the most. The "fetus" is usually aborted before it is even medically determined or labeled "fetus". The cluster of cells being aborted is usually called a Blastocyte or Zygote. It doesn't become a fetus until after 8 weeks.
2007-03-15 09:19:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
You mean "affected," not "effected."
And a fetus is not a legally recognized citizen of the United States and is therefore not granted any rights under the Constitution.
There are two ways to become a citizen of the United States:
1. You can be BORN here, or
2. You can naturalize.
A fetus has done neither.
2007-03-15 09:19:03 · answer #3 · answered by Bush Invented the Google 6 · 7⤊ 1⤋
i personally don't view the fetus as someone...it doesn't have a nervous system until the first trimester is over...therefore it is not capable of living on it's own and is not conscious...the constitution states that a persons rights take affect once someone is BORN...
2007-03-15 09:19:25 · answer #4 · answered by Paulien 5 · 5⤊ 1⤋
Do miscarriages affect the fetus more than the woman? If you say yes, I know you have never had one
2007-03-15 09:19:56 · answer #5 · answered by hichefheidi 6 · 6⤊ 2⤋
A fetus is not a person until it attains consciousness. What it is is potential life.
2007-03-15 09:22:42 · answer #6 · answered by Ice 3 · 3⤊ 2⤋
you should try to see this from a biologists point of view. Wow it's harsh.
2007-03-15 09:27:07 · answer #7 · answered by aphotic nostrum 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first .. it's impossible to compare one life to another.. so you can't realistically say who would be affected the most...
second.. if you never have consciousness.. you never know anything to have been affected....
2007-03-15 09:20:35 · answer #8 · answered by pip 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
how do you affect something that has no mind?
to be affected you must have perception
2007-03-15 10:21:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
i totally agree with woahwoahmrslibby
2007-03-15 09:24:13 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋