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3 answers

Almost definitely as trade existed between the two cultures. However the average Greek or Indian would have been ignorant and the quality of knowledge of those few who did know of the other would have been poor.

2007-03-15 13:34:14 · answer #1 · answered by Will B 3 · 0 0

Yes, used to trade.

2007-03-15 07:36:23 · answer #2 · answered by verbalise 4 · 0 0

no i do not think so.. and nothing in the article provided by the guy above me indicates that they did

2007-03-15 09:08:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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