In a paragraph under that heading (Petition of Dissolution of Marriage), it states that
"Each party understand this this Agreement shall not and is not in any manner to be contrued or interpreted as an agreement of dissolution of marriage, but is for the specific purpose of determining and settling the property rights and obligations of the parties with respect to each other and their children"
Wouldn't that contradict itself? Especially when the relationship didnt produce any children?
2007-03-15 06:09:20 · 8 answers · asked by Jordan 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
No because the Petition itself is not the "dissolution of marriage".. it would be the judgment or settlement agreement which you will later sign after you settle
2007-03-15 06:14:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The contract agreement is for the specific purpose of settling property rights only (nothing else) as it applies to both parties and possibly children involved
Makes sense to me - as I've dealt with a few in my day
2007-03-15 06:20:10 · answer #2 · answered by pinniethewooh 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It sounds more like a settlement agreement which is Incorporated by reference into a petition for dissolution.
What you have is boiler plate language from an attorney, settlement agreements are part and parcel of any divorce but the petition itself is submitted to the court along with the settlement agreement, they need not be in the same document but it appears this is what has happened in your situation.
2007-03-15 06:14:05 · answer #3 · answered by SirSmartAzz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-01-13 05:08:33 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2017-03-01 01:17:36 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It means it dealing with the property issues, not why your getting a divorce or custody etc.
2007-03-15 06:13:09 · answer #6 · answered by walker9842 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well its in case you did have children.
2007-03-15 06:17:45 · answer #7 · answered by Denny O 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah it would.
2007-03-15 06:32:12 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋