2007-03-15 05:47:05 · 2 answers · asked by Sally 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
One is wearing a suit. Ha ha.
Actually, an informal fallacy is wrong because one of your premises is wrong. A formal one is wrong because of how you constructed your argument.
So if my fallacious argument were:
- All flowers are sweet-smelling.
- The rose is a flower.
- Therefore, I am sweet-smelling.
It would be a formal fallacy. The conclusion does not logically follow from the premises... the premises never mention me at all. It is the logic that is flawed.
On the other hand, if my argument were:
- All flowers are sweet-smelling.
- I am a flower.
- Therefore, I am sweet-smelling.
This would be an informal fallacy. The logic is perfectly reasonable... or it would be if I were actually a flower. But it turns out that I'm not. So it is the second premise that is flawed.
Hope that helps!
2007-03-15 05:56:28 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmm... casual fallacy? would not the assertion describing Limbaugh as "extremely-splendid-wing fascist lunatic" make this assertion in the comparable spirit as Limbaugh's perceived arguments?
2016-12-14 19:51:54 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋