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i dont really get the meaning of tis question which is set by my teacher... can some1 plz kindly explain this question brifly and give me the ans too? i really nid help over here. thanks-

2007-03-15 03:08:21 · 3 answers · asked by Ong S 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

I guess that you have trouble spelling...

ALL empires have territorial aspirations and motivations. There is a contemporary debate regarding just HOW territorial the US has become, and whether it is an empire that will destroy the known-world.

Go google the: Roman; British; French; Austrian; Russian; et alia empires. Do some homework for a change...

Paul

2007-03-15 03:22:36 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

means an empire that not only is looking for profits but wants to annex land or territory to their riches. For instance the oil empire of the middle east wants to control the pricing & distribution of petroleum around the world,but they are not looking to take over any countries,on the other hand we had the Roman,British,Spanish empires that had annexed countries all over the world in the 18th,19th and even part of the 20th century...i hope this will help you,good luck in school

2007-03-15 10:28:26 · answer #2 · answered by la parca 1 · 0 0

The USA is alluded to be an empire because its influence spreads in all parts of the globe, penetrating governments and private institution through its foreing polices.You see, the terrritorial jurisdiction is like spreading as that of an umbrella to become an empire. Hence, it has terrirotial motivations, meaning it wants to control nations for its interests, otherwise USA will not thrive. because it needs other countries natural resources or their geographical strategic position if you consider security of USA.

2007-03-15 10:20:30 · answer #3 · answered by wilma m 6 · 0 0

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