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how did the perpetrators of the spanish inquisition convince others to let them carry it out?
who was held responsible for the spanish inquisition?
what have institutions like the United Nations or other world governments said about the spanish inquisition?
How have people continued to suffer in the years following the spanish inquisition?
How has knowledge of the genocide continued to be spread around the world in the time following the spanish inquisition?
Is the spanish inquisition likely to be repeated again?

sorry for all those ?????? but i really need those answers!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

please,, por favor,,,
thank you

2007-03-15 03:07:05 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

That is history; the richer try to get richer and the poor could not aspired to get better.
The social 'classes' always subdue the others which in turn retaliates.
So to end once and for all since they were catholic and with power to do what they though were wright, they create the inquisition; that means if you were not catholic, have two choices: convert or die.
This means Muslims, protestants, Jews, etc fled out of Spain.
Spain was a powerful Nation at the time and could do what they want without anybody stop them, as other powerful nations before them did, and the ones now do.

2007-03-15 03:30:46 · answer #1 · answered by bigonegrande 6 · 0 0

The Spanish (and Portuguese) society of the time-when Spain was regained by Christians, after centuries of Muslim occupation-was fanatically Catholic, to a degree one can hardly imagine, and much more then other Catholic countries, who were fanatic during the Middle Ages. The Inquisition was an agency of the Pope, but even the Popes could not restrain it. Spanish monarchs too were more fanatic then the Popes. The economic situation in Spain, when the Inquisition began functioning there, was reasonable, as far as I know.

2007-03-16 02:44:14 · answer #2 · answered by Avner Eliyahu R 6 · 0 0

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