2007-03-14 13:10:42 · 6 answers · asked by sweetdadyuk 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
If a witness can testify or if both litigants acknowledge the agreement in a court of law.
2007-03-14 13:16:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Verbal agreements are TECHNICALLY binding. The exception is agreements that the law specifically states must be in writing. As a practical matter, you have to PROVE there was an agreement. Verbal agreements are notoriously hard to prove.
2007-03-14 20:41:48 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the verbal agreement.
2007-03-14 20:13:41 · answer #3 · answered by Student 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are if a precedent was set, for example previous verbal agreements that were honored
2007-03-14 20:19:56 · answer #4 · answered by fra_bob 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
always get it in writing,for a verbal at least have a witness.
2007-03-14 20:16:36 · answer #5 · answered by I Bleed Black & Gold 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the state ... in PA yes they are.
2007-03-14 20:22:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋