2007-03-14 12:23:38 · 2 answers · asked by naila 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
This is a link to a paper dealing with that very subject. http://www.hammonds.com/FileServer.aspx?oID=20899
2007-03-14 20:53:43 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the context.... whether you are talking about change of use of real property, intellectual property, or change of use behavior as it relates to family law issues.
Generally, a change counts as "material" if it makes a difference. Such as affecting the value of the property, or exceeding the scope of authorization allowed by agreement or court order.
If a change does not make an important difference, relative to the court order or relative to the basis of the bargain in a contract or lease situation, then it is not material.
2007-03-14 19:29:10 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋