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Here is the statement: “She said she is convinced he is not guilty because he is not that kind of person.”

Here is the whole article from which this quote came:
SAN DIEGO -- The wife of the El Cajon officer accused of soliciting sexual favors from women he arrested took the stand at his trial Tuesday and said he is not guilty, NBC7/39 reported. Investigators said at least five women have come forward with allegations against Officer William Taylor. His wife Deanna Taylor testified about how she got the news of the accusations. She said she tried to reach her husband by phone, and when she finally talked to him, he wasn't himself. "When I would normally reach him, he would tell me exactly what he was doing -- reports to finish, or if he was on call. He would give me specifics, he didn't this time," Deanna Taylor said.

2007-03-14 10:45:03 · 4 answers · asked by Puri 2 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

Deanna Taylor testified that her husband told her in detail about the allegations when he got home. She said she is convinced he is not guilty because he is not that kind of person. William Taylor has pleaded not guilty to the charges.

Source: http://www.nbcsandiego.com/news/11245702/detail.html?rss=dgo&psp=news

2007-03-14 10:46:02 · update #1

4 answers

I'm not a certified rhetorician but I would say yes, the statement is begging the question. She's basically saying that he didn't do it because he's a person who wouldn't do it. Can she provide evidence to prove beyond any doubt that he isn't a person who would do whatever he's accused of? If you can't back a statement with evidence it's usually pretty easy to tear down and this is also a good sign that it's a fallacy.

I would like to know what this guy is accused of.

2007-03-14 11:00:51 · answer #1 · answered by GiggleBoxMcGee 2 · 0 0

I don't think so.

IF Ms. Taylor is saying "I BELIEVE Mr Taylor is not guilty of the accused crimes because I know Mr. Taylor on the basis of a long-term marriage and Mr. Taylor would not be identical to himself if he did commit the crimes" then she has given some support as to why Mr. Taylor's character/essence/self is contrary to that of the accused. While she is not the best authority (certainly she's not unbiased), if honest, she would be one of the best judges of his character. And if, like she says, "he" did commit the crime, then that's not the man she married.

I see why you think it is circular, because you could parse it like so: "Mr. Taylor is not guilty because Mr. Taylor is not guilty". But that would omit Mrs. Taylor's belief-state, reduce character to identity, and overlook Mrs. Taylor's priveleged testimony into Mr. Taylor's character.

2007-03-14 20:38:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I would say yes, it is a begging the question fallacy because she is assuming what she is trying to prove. In other words, she is saying that he is not guilty because he is not guilty! That's defective reasoning.

2007-03-14 11:57:26 · answer #3 · answered by browneyedgirl90 3 · 0 0

She's just saying he's not like that. It's not begging: It's a statement.

2007-03-14 10:56:03 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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