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6 answers

No it is not. Deriv of arctan hasn't any square roots.

Use (d/du)[arctan u]
= 1/(1 + u^2)
When u = 6x/5, to find dy/dx we multiply this derivative by
du/dx
Thus
dy/dx
= [1/(1 + (6x/5)^2)]*6/5
Multiply top and bottom by 25 to get
30/(25 + 36x^2)

2007-03-14 00:11:56 · answer #1 · answered by Hy 7 · 0 0

The way to get the correct answer is to start by saying
y = arctan(6x/5) implies tany = 6x/5. Then use implicit differentiation giving (secy)^2*dy/dx = 6/5. Then use the identity (secy)^2 = 1 + (tany)^2 on the LHS. Take it from there.

2007-03-14 00:15:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

y = tan^(-1) (6x / 5) and let u = 6x / 5
dy/du = 1/(1 + 36x² / 25)
dy/du = 25 / (25 + 36x²)
du/dx = 6 / 5
dy/dx = (6 / 5).25 / (25 + 36x²)
dy/dx= 30 / (25 + 36.x²)

2007-03-14 00:43:04 · answer #3 · answered by Como 7 · 0 0

y = acrtan 6x/5
=> tan y = 6x/5
d.w.r.t. x, we get
(sec y)^2 dy/dx = 6/5

=> dy/dx = 6/5((sec y)^2)
=> dy/dx = 6/5(1+(tany)^2)
by putting the value of tan y above we will get,

dy/dx = 6/5(1+(6x/5)^2)
=> dy/dx = 30/(25 + 36x^2)........answer

2007-03-14 00:30:49 · answer #4 · answered by desh 1 · 0 0

once you're familar with gradients. in searching that ?f(0,0)=0 and take a examine out to be sturdy. As for the f,h,0 mathematician form information i'd be shocked in case your coach replaced into requiring you to attempt this. discover that fx(0,0) and fy(0,0) equals 0. *******at the same time as you partial differentiate fx..... X^2+y^2 the y^2 is eliminated as a consistent. And it may basically be 2x. If it replaced into once x^2(y^2), fx may equivalent 2x(y^2). And vice versa with fy***********

2016-12-01 23:43:43 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

I swear I knew this.. I swear..

2007-03-14 00:12:37 · answer #6 · answered by Alicia 3 · 0 0

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