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Do you believe that the french and indian war was the war that 'made America'? If not do you see any relevance between the war and the making of america

2007-03-13 16:26:07 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

1 answers

Yes. Out of it, two of the three states of North America emerged: the United States and Canada.

The United States. As a result of the British victory in the French and Indian Wars, the dangers of French power in Canada were removed as far as the settlers in the British coloonies were concerned. This was important in two ways: first, if war broke out, they were not subject to attack. Secondly, the French (who ahd an active program of exploration and establishment of forts, in the Great Lakes region and along the riverv alleys of the Ohio and Mississippi) were removed as rivals for control of the teritories to the west of the English colonies, and American settlers could move into those areas. But as a result of its wartime victories, the British thought that it was only fair that the American colonists should share in the debts arising from these wars and in the costs of imperial defense. The British Parliament imposed taxes and varioius financial duties on the Americans. American business resented these new taxes and launched a political campaign around such slogans as "no taxation without representation." Eventually, resistance to paying a share of the costs escalated into the American revolution, and within a generation after the end of the French and Indian Wars, the United States had come together, fought and won the American Revolution against Britain, and was "the First New Nation" (Seymour Martin Lipset)\

Canada: Conversely, as a result of the British victory and conquest of the Quebec colony, the origins of Canada were established as a bilingual, multicultural (the first non-British, non-French settlers such as Jews and Germans entered Canada in the wake of the British armies), somewhat more conservative country. At first, it was a series of British colonies; by the middle of the 19th century, it was exercising internal self-government with representative institutions; by the 1930s, it was legally independent of Britain in external affairs.

2007-03-13 16:44:50 · answer #1 · answered by silvcslt 4 · 1 0

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