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2007-03-13 09:54:17 · 3 answers · asked by Scotty Doesnt Know 7 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

Ms. Dynomite, please tell me WHERE in the bible it says she takes on the name of her husband, and I'll give you best answer. I'm pretty sure there's no mention of that in the bible.

2007-03-14 04:40:47 · update #1

No one's really come up with a good answer on this one yet.

2007-03-15 04:18:12 · update #2

3 answers

Traditionally, in the U.S., women have assumed their new husband's surnames after marriage to him, although this was never legally required except in a couple of states in the U.S. All the children of the marriage are then given their father's surname, so that the mother's surname is not used by any of her descendants. Some areas have a custom of using the mother's maiden name as a given name for one of the children.

This practice means that women inherit their surname from their father, and change it to match their husband's. This has been criticised for a number of reasons: it can be construed as meaning the woman's father and then husband had control over her body and "brand" her with their names to signify that control or possession; and it means that lines of male descent are seen as primary, that a woman has no inherited name tying her to her female ancestors.


When I marry, I will take my boyfrends name. We will be family.

2007-03-13 10:00:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

it originated from the bible.in mathew a women leaves her parents and take the name of her husband and they become one.its good stuff LOL

2007-03-13 17:25:06 · answer #2 · answered by mrs.dynomite 3 · 1 1

I researched this online and received several different answers, so you may need to google this and dig a little deeper =)

2007-03-13 17:05:59 · answer #3 · answered by suzlaa1971 5 · 0 2

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