If a guy has a foot fetish for both sexes, but isn't attracted to men sexually, is he bi?
2007-03-13 03:59:23 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Its a fetish just like S&M/BDSM, Pup Play, roleplaying, WS, uniforms etc...this list continues. liking a certain fetish doesnt change your sexuality just means you have a more colorful sex life thats all.
2007-03-13 07:42:21 · answer #1 · answered by Prometheus Cowboy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Forget for a moment about what you think male on male sex is.
What is this guy's definition of male on male foot fetish?
In the process of performing this act is he giving or recieving pleasure or both? If he was performing this act on a woman would it be considered sexual?
If you answer to yes to either or both of these question you may at least consider this guy is bi. But in the end only he can say if he is or if he is not.
2007-03-13 14:27:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not necessarily. If he's only attracted sexually to women but has an attraction to feet in general it just means he has a particularly strong foot fetish.
2007-03-13 12:58:00 · answer #3 · answered by DawnDavenport 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. A fetish is sexual stimulation from an object or body part not nomrally associated with sex. It generally exists separate from orientation.
If your orientation is to women, and not to men, you're straight, regardless of what fetishes you might have.
2007-03-13 12:24:56 · answer #4 · answered by Kate 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope that simply means he has a foot fetish.
2007-03-13 12:24:20 · answer #5 · answered by {{...Ladi...}} 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he's a fetishist, which is not a sexual disposition.
2007-03-13 12:02:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
No
2007-03-13 15:00:01 · answer #7 · answered by Evil Angel 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2007-03-13 12:00:25 · answer #8 · answered by 14 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋