a)the original number
b)the square of the original number
c)one
d)zero
2007-03-13 02:52:53 · 13 answers · asked by lsymamita 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
c)one
but that's not true in case of zero
2007-03-13 02:56:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2/2 = 1
3/3 = 1
4/4= 1
5/5 = 1
- - - - - - - -- s
2007-03-13 03:31:00 · answer #2 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course, c
Because any time when a number is divided by itself it gets the quotient one.for e.g.-
4/4=1,5/5=1
But 0/0 is not equal to one because 0 doesn't have any multiple other than 0.
Clear Now.
2007-03-13 03:05:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
And you couldn't have thought in your head:
2/2=1
3/3=1
4/4=1
5/5=1
so the answer must be one!
?
And the sad thing is you probably go to an American public school....
:(
2007-03-13 02:58:30 · answer #4 · answered by Nasubi 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
=1 if the number is NOT zero
2007-03-13 02:56:01 · answer #5 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
c) one
unless original number is zero, in which case it's undefined
2007-03-13 02:56:27 · answer #6 · answered by blighmaster 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c, because
2/2=1
45/45=1
etc
2007-03-13 02:55:14 · answer #7 · answered by mastermasonglp 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one
2007-03-13 03:08:44 · answer #8 · answered by minorchord2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
c)1
nd 0/0 = undefined
and am working on it
2007-03-13 02:58:28 · answer #9 · answered by I am an Indian 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1, everything goes into itself only one time.
2007-03-13 03:01:48 · answer #10 · answered by oneblondepilgrim 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋