Even after offering a discount of 15%, a trader still earns a profit of 19%. By how much percentage has he marked his goods, above the cost price?
answer with solution please.
2007-03-12 23:41:57 · 4 answers · asked by Jay B 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
x - his price
y - real cost
x - 0.15x = 1.19 y
0.85x = 1.19 y
x = 1.19/0.85 y = 1.4y = y + 40%y
2007-03-12 23:51:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The easiest way to do a problem like this is to figure that the cost price was 100 dollars, or pounds or dirhans or flurbs.
This is because our normal system is based on 10.
So you can see that the trader gets 119 flurbs. But this is only .85 of his original price. So 119 is .85 of what? I hope you can take it from there. To check yourself, you have to figure that the original price will be more than 119 flurbs, but not so very much more.
This can only work if you understand that 100% = 1x and that therefore 119% is 1.19x. If you understand how percentages work, you don't even have to bother with "x". You just divide 119 by .85.
If you don't understand how percentages work, you need to ask another question.
2007-03-13 08:00:20 · answer #2 · answered by obelix 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Listen in the class. Short cuts wont do
2007-03-13 06:56:05 · answer #3 · answered by mekhalasri 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
you really should try listening in class.
you will never get a gold star by doing ya homework on yahoo answers..
tut tut
2007-03-13 06:46:14 · answer #4 · answered by manchester_babe_30 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋