Land reforms initiated by governments half a century ago in India were lauded worldwide. Government had stepped in on behalf of landless citizens and had appropriated land to them from landlords who were abusing land resources.
Fifty years hence, the same political parties are now introducing land-reforms in a different way. Now, land is taken away from the poor people, those agriculturists and given away as a single big unit to industrialists and capitalists.
How come such a change happen to a terminology, with very few people actually even noticing it?
2007-03-12
22:28:26
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1 answers
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asked by
doxa
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Politics