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2007-03-12 12:55:24 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

No, not a chance.
Case 1: no war between Germany and USSR.
Hitler would control virtually all of Europe except the USSR and Britain. As heroic as the Battle of Britain was, Britain could not come close to matching the resources of continental Europe in a protracted war of attrition and would have surcomed before the US entered the war or could offer sufficient aid. The British made the mistake of building a battleship navy that would have suffered the same fate as Japan's battleships to German land based air power. Germany's only major weakness was limited access to oil. With Britain taken care of, Germany and Italy would have controlled the Mediteranean, North Africa, and by extension the Middle East. Unlike US forces now in the Middle East, the Nazis were ruthless enough to exterminate whole populations to protect their interests and had the means to do so. It is unlikely that the US could have matched the resources of a Nazi Europe, North Africa and Middle East, let alone muster the superiority needed to sustain an operation across the Atlantic Ocean. Technical superiority? The Germans had better tanks and the first jet aircraft. The US lost 5 Shermans to every Tiger tank, but produced Shermans at more than a 5:1 ratio. If the German Panzers were in France rather than lost in huge battles at Stalingrad, Kursk, etc. how would a US invasion of France have fared? Both the US and Germany were developing atomic weapons, and did not have the ability to cross the Atlantic in force, so the likely outcome would be a draw.
Case 2: If Russia entered the war and lost quickly, then Case 1 above would still apply except that the Nazis would have even more resources at their disposal. Stalin was not loved for good reason: he killed more of his own people before the war than Hitler did during the war. At the beginning of the war huge Soviet armies refused to fight for the communist cause and surrendered without much of a fight. If the Nazis had treated the conquered populations with civility rather than barbarism, the Russian people would not have reason to resist and the communist regime would have collapsed.

2007-03-12 14:25:32 · answer #1 · answered by d/dx+d/dy+d/dz 6 · 1 1

I think the US would have won, but the war would have lasted many more years. The Russian's second front against Germany helped pull troops from the west coast of Europe. Had the Germans over run Moscow, the war would have dragged on.

I believe the Allies won the war for the following reasons:

America's distance from the Germans. England was reduced to rubble by the German Airforce, yet America was untouched and unreachable.

American industrial output was enormous. Germany had great equipment to fight a war with, but the shear number of tanks, guns, and planes we produce overwhelmed the Germans.

America would have nuked Germany into submission, or used the Japanese as an example to what we could do to Germany.

Germany ran out of key resources needed to wage a sustained war against the Allies.

Some of the many reasons America would eventually be the victor.

2007-03-12 13:08:12 · answer #2 · answered by Moby 2 · 1 2

Actually, the only reason the USSR got involved was because Hitler violated the non-aggression pact he and Stalin had signed. Stalin was willing to let Hitler take over what he wanted as long as he left USSR interests alone.

But, in answer to your question, yes the Allies would have won anyway. Without the Soviets, the US/British had moved into Italy and France. It would only have been a matter of time before we could have taken out even a concentrated, densely packed nazi army out of Germany. It was simply easier since Hitler had spread his forces thin by trying to invade the USSR.

2007-03-12 13:08:39 · answer #3 · answered by quntmphys238 6 · 1 1

No. Over 3/4 of German Military casualties in WWII were inflicted by the Soviets, who were pretty much on their own against Germany, Finland, Hungary and Romania from June of 1941 until June of 1944. It was during that period that the Red Army, as Winston Churchill out it, "tore the guts out of the Weremacht." D-Day was possible only because of the millions of Germans who had died in Russia, and because the British and American forces never had to face more than 1/3 of the German Army that remained.

2007-03-12 16:00:35 · answer #4 · answered by Captain Hammer 6 · 2 1

Yes

2007-03-12 13:02:37 · answer #5 · answered by Yahoo!Advisory 1 · 1 1

Yes because you had the british too,just would have took a bit longer. Also could have nuked them if need be.

2007-03-12 13:01:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

What are you talking about!!
There were 4 allies.
France
England
U.S.S.R
U.S.A

2007-03-12 13:04:02 · answer #7 · answered by STA-TOW 5 · 1 1

No

2007-03-12 13:07:42 · answer #8 · answered by prusa1237 7 · 1 1

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