2007-03-12 11:05:32 · 3 answers · asked by kappalokka 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Not if they are following the Canons of Judicial Ethics and doing their job properly.
That being said, I'm sure there are some who are. For example, I recall one family court judge (in Indiana, I think) who ordered two parents (who both followed the same non-Christian religion) to refrain from raising their children in that religion because "it was not mainstream". Both parents jointly appealed the decision.
That's a perfect example of invalid judicial bias.
2007-03-12 11:09:27 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, if they are doing their job, no. And in most cases, the religion of people before the judge is not even known.
With that said, judges are human. They have opinions and biases just like anyone else. Even if they are consciously trying to be neutral, on some level I am sure their own beliefs come into play.
2007-03-12 18:16:28 · answer #2 · answered by EthanHunt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless it comes up in deliberations, do judges even know the denomination of the defendant??
2007-03-12 18:13:53 · answer #3 · answered by music junkie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋