I thought death is singular and it was therefore supposed to carry the singular verb does and not the plural one do. Are there any more other exception to the verbal law.
2007-03-12 01:00:15 · 4 answers · asked by muyanwajames 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Yes, there are many. The phrase you had is in the subjunctive mood, and although it's not common in English, it is used.
For the subjunctive, the regular verbs are conjugated as: I do, you do, he/she/it do, we do, you do, they do. Just like the indicative mood, except no 's' or 'es' for third person singular.
Some more examples where subjunctive is used:
if it please the court
perish the thought
suffice it to say
God save the Queen
In all those, there is a singular third person subject (it, thought, it, God) yet the verb looks like the third person plural indicative.
You can use any verb in English in the subjunctive mood.
2007-03-12 05:09:26 · answer #1 · answered by dollhaus 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Until death do us part" is not technically correct in this day and age. It's an archaic form of english.
Back in the age of Edmund Spenser (c. 1552-1599) this sort of thing was commonplace in the English language.
maybe studying the period in which he lived will help you find other examples of this sort of english.
2007-03-12 12:11:47 · answer #2 · answered by xian 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I believe the meaning is not "until death does part us" but rather "until we do part at death"
2007-03-12 05:19:54 · answer #3 · answered by Absinthia 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's not incorrect; it's archaic.
2007-03-12 02:20:29 · answer #4 · answered by Fiona J 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋