English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

In the 16th century, Spain had more than 1.5 trillion dollars in 1990 terms worth of gold. This does not even count the silver and other thing! They also had control of Portugal and its colonies, which means it got its spice trade. They also still had large imports of gold and silver coming in.

Ps: One Spanish ship bringing gold to spain had more money worth than what Englands queen and all its people saw in a whole year.

2007-03-11 18:03:42 · 5 answers · asked by qdurango 1 in Arts & Humanities History

Also, remember that I am talking about empires and not modern day nations, since our economy is way different and higher than back then. I believe that The British Empire at its hight only had a bit more than 1,000 billion dollars
Also, I said that spain possesed more than 1.5 million dollars worth of gold, not wasted. That happened way later.

2007-03-12 12:07:04 · update #1

5 answers

although Spain was transporting gold left and right from the new world, Spain squander her earnings on continental wars and corruption. At no point did the government invested in its economy or its infrastructure. Spain was not wealth, Spain was stupid.

A good comparison would be that Spain won the lottery, but like most lottery winner, eventually in the end, there was no more money.

2007-03-11 18:52:58 · answer #1 · answered by Jadeite 3 · 0 0

The Spanish conquistadors took the gold and silver from the wealthiest Empires in the Americas, maybe the Aztecs, the Incas, or the Eygptians were the wealthiest ever empires? Possibly also Persia!

2007-03-12 02:41:10 · answer #2 · answered by Tony Montana 1 · 0 0

well, yes and not because as soon as the money was arriving to the spanish ports was use by the king to pay the bankers in the Netherlands and Germany that were financing the wars spanish was involved in for more than 200 years to "protect" catholic religions , or they said so...
The fact is that not much of that money was used in Spain and that and the fact that the younger and better men went to America to find fortune or to the wars around Europe was latter a huge toll for Spain that affected the country for more than 200 years

2007-03-11 18:18:44 · answer #3 · answered by torreart 3 · 0 0

Actually the USA would capture that title. In 1990 (the year you point out), the US federal government gathered 3 trillion dollars in taxes. The individual states would've gathered about the same in either income tax or fees.

2007-03-11 19:20:33 · answer #4 · answered by adphllps 5 · 0 0

Depends on how you're defining a few things. The Modern US is vastly wealthier than 16th century Spain, does that count?

2007-03-11 18:21:30 · answer #5 · answered by KevinStud99 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers