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evaluate: cos(cosecant1)

2007-03-11 17:04:19 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

Did you mean cos (inverse csc 1)
This would make more sense.
The answer would be 0.

inverse csc 1 = pi/2
then cos ( pi/2) = 0

2007-03-11 17:42:16 · answer #1 · answered by MathMark 3 · 0 0

you ought to apply some trig identities like tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) so in case you remedy for cos and replace on your equation you get sin^2 + sin^2/tan^2 = a million or sin^2(a million + a million/tan^2) = a million or sin^2 = a million/(a million + a million/tan^2) so sin = sqrt( a million/ (a million + a million/ tan^2))

2016-11-24 21:42:13 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

cos ( csc^(1)(x) )

To solve this, let t = csc^(-1)(x). Taking the csc of both sides,

csc(t) = x. From here, use SOHCAHTOA.

Remember that sin = opp/hyp, cos = adj/hyp, tan = opp/adj.
It subsequently follows that

csc = hyp/opp, sec = hyp/adj, cot = adj/opp.

csc(t) = x/1 = hyp/opp.

hyp = x
opp = 1, so by Pythagoras,
adj = sqrt( hyp^2 - opp^2 ) = sqrt(x^2 - 1).

Therefore,

cos(t) = cos( csc^(-1)(x) ) = adj/hyp = sqrt(x^2 - 1)/x

2007-03-11 17:08:32 · answer #3 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

cos(cosecant1) =
cos(1/sin1) =
cos(1/0.84147) =
cos(1.188395) =
0.3731493

2007-03-11 17:16:41 · answer #4 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

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