Did you mean cos (inverse csc 1)
This would make more sense.
The answer would be 0.
inverse csc 1 = pi/2
then cos ( pi/2) = 0
2007-03-11 17:42:16
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answer #1
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answered by MathMark 3
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you ought to apply some trig identities like tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) so in case you remedy for cos and replace on your equation you get sin^2 + sin^2/tan^2 = a million or sin^2(a million + a million/tan^2) = a million or sin^2 = a million/(a million + a million/tan^2) so sin = sqrt( a million/ (a million + a million/ tan^2))
2016-11-24 21:42:13
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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cos ( csc^(1)(x) )
To solve this, let t = csc^(-1)(x). Taking the csc of both sides,
csc(t) = x. From here, use SOHCAHTOA.
Remember that sin = opp/hyp, cos = adj/hyp, tan = opp/adj.
It subsequently follows that
csc = hyp/opp, sec = hyp/adj, cot = adj/opp.
csc(t) = x/1 = hyp/opp.
hyp = x
opp = 1, so by Pythagoras,
adj = sqrt( hyp^2 - opp^2 ) = sqrt(x^2 - 1).
Therefore,
cos(t) = cos( csc^(-1)(x) ) = adj/hyp = sqrt(x^2 - 1)/x
2007-03-11 17:08:32
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answer #3
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answered by Puggy 7
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cos(cosecant1) =
cos(1/sin1) =
cos(1/0.84147) =
cos(1.188395) =
0.3731493
2007-03-11 17:16:41
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answer #4
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answered by Helmut 7
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