2007-03-11 15:41:52 · 5 answers · asked by Megan 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
After the war Prussia took Alsace, which Louis the XIV had taken from German princes in the 18th century, and all of Lorraine (not just the eastern third that was historically German). This was against the wishes of Bismark who did not want any "French subjects" in the new German Empire. But the Prussian King (and First German Emperor) insisted that the fortress city of Metz must be in German hands.
It would be better for both France and Germany if they divided those provinces and let the Vosges, rather than the Rhine, be the boundary between them. This issue may arise again in the future, as will the question of the German/Polish boundary where the Russians took Stettin and too much of Salicia in 1945.
2007-03-11 18:09:06 · answer #1 · answered by James@hbpl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Germany seized Alsace Lorraine from France.
2007-03-11 16:10:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The territories of Alsace and Lorraine were directly annexed by Germany as well as a payment of reparations to the victor.
2007-03-11 15:57:40 · answer #3 · answered by ron k 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Shawn, i'm sorry the subject remember could look complicated, yet this is strictly what our instructor gave me. are you able to then clarify how Bismarck became into relatively the chief. i know he wished to make France look because of the fact the aggressor and he manipulated activities to make France declare conflict. yet what all of us know is very imprecise. If plausible are you able to please clarify what you recognize
2016-12-18 20:29:33 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Prussia, Austria, Poland and East LA
2007-03-11 15:48:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋