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2007-03-11 13:21:49 · 21 answers · asked by pradeep raja 1 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

21 answers

Around one hundred and fifty years after Shakespeare's death in 1616, doubts began to be expressed by some researchers about the authorship of the plays and poetry attributed to him. The terms Shakespearean authorship, and the Shakespeare Authorship Question normally refer to the debates inspired by these researchers, who consider the works to have been written by another playwright, or group of playwrights, using either William Shakespeare, or the hyphenated "Shake-speare", as a pen-name.

Admirers of Shakespeare's works are often disappointed by the lack of available information about the author. In "Who Wrote Shakespeare" (1996), John Mitchell notes "The known facts about Shakespeare's life ... can be written down on one side of a sheet of notepaper." He cites Mark Twain's satirical expression of the same point in the section "Facts" in "Is Shakespeare Dead" (1909).

Edward de Vere, the 17th Earl of Oxford, an English nobleman and intimate of Queen Elizabeth, remains the most prominent alternative candidate for authorship of the Shakespeare canon, having been identified in the 1920s and further researched in the 1980's. Oxford partisans note his literary reputation, education and travels, as well as striking similarities between the Earl's life and events depicted in the plays and sonnets. The principal hurdle for the Oxfordian theory is the conventional theory that many of the Shakespeare plays were written after Oxford's death (1604), but well within the lifespan of William Shakespeare. Oxfordians counter this argument by noting that the conventinal dating scheme was developed by Stratfordian researchers, and cite research that suggests "Shakespeare" actually stopped writing in 1604, the same year that regular publication of Shakespeare's plays stopped.

Christopher Marlowe is considered by some to be the most highly qualified to have written the works of Shakespeare.[citation needed] It has been speculated that Marlowe's recorded death in 1593 was faked for various reasons and that Marlowe went into hiding, subsequently writing under the name of William Shakespeare; this is called the Marlovian theory. Sir Francis Bacon is another proposed author for the Shakespeare works. Besides having travelled to some of the countries in which the plays are set, he could also have read the Shakespeare sources in their original Greek, Italian, Hebrew, or French. He described himself as a "Concealed Poet" and was alive at the time of the publication of the First Folio in 1623. Arguments against Bacon include the suggestion that he had no time to write so many plays, and that his style is different from Shakespeare's.

A question in mainstream academia addresses whether Shakespeare himself wrote every word of his commonly accepted plays, given that collaboration between dramatists routinely occurred in the Elizabethan theatre. Serious academic work continues to attempt to ascertain the authorship of plays and poems of the time, both those attributed to Shakespeare and others.

2007-03-11 13:35:21 · answer #1 · answered by sagar kumar 2 · 1 1

Did William Shakespeare Exist

2016-11-03 01:57:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

While he was a real person, another question you might be thinking of is: Did he actually pen his published works?

Theories that exist:

Christopher Marlowe is considered by some to be the most highly qualified to have written the works of Shakespeare. It has been speculated that Marlowe's recorded death in 1593 was faked for various reasons and that Marlowe went into hiding, subsequently writing under the name of William Shakespeare; this is called the Marlovian theory. Sir Francis Bacon is another proposed author for the Shakespeare works. Besides having travelled to some of the countries in which the plays are set, he could also have read the Shakespeare sources in their original Greek, Italian, Hebrew, or French. He described himself as a "Concealed Poet" and was alive at the time of the publication of the First Folio in 1623. Arguments against Bacon include the suggestion that he had no time to write so many plays, and that his style is different from Shakespeare's.

2007-03-11 13:34:13 · answer #3 · answered by tehsuxs 3 · 1 0

People are still arguing whether or not Shakespeare wrote "his" works, or if it is the work of someone else. The doubt is due to the fact that he had no education to speak of, and at the time plagiarism was not a problem nor illegal. Reading articles or even books about the question makes you wonder, but in the end there doesn't seem to be another author that could have written it either. It's the doubt that's fun, and that keeps the fires of disagreement continue to flame.

The famous Harold Bloom known as America's preeminent literature critic at Yale has a book "Shakespeare and Originality" but I've never been able to finish it.

2007-03-11 13:32:12 · answer #4 · answered by PAT 3 · 2 1

Aside from the plays, he was an historical figure, a director for the famous Globe theater. As to the theories concerning authorship, some believe that a few of his plays were penned by Queen Elizabeth because the themes are so different, like A Winter's Tale. Others believe that some of his plays were actually products of the Earl of Marlborough. However, many scholars conclude that the distinct meter and rhyme of his poetry, which is the vein he wrote his plays in, is a "signature" of one original author: Shakespeare.

2007-03-11 13:26:27 · answer #5 · answered by sherrilyn1999 3 · 1 0

I was told that Shakespeare could of been a women in disguise like George Eliot(Mary Ann Evans) was. Also, he may of been at the age of 8 when he started writing his 38 plays, 154 sonnets and few short poems. which means he spent most of his life writing. The only way to find out is to invent time travel!

2015-02-10 05:56:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

William Shakespeare might not have been any separate legitimate man. But his name exists. There must be someone called Shakespeare. Someone might have used it as a pseudonym or any arbitrary name(pet name) . Hence, there was someone named Shakespeare whoever he was.

2015-02-22 00:53:18 · answer #7 · answered by Arjun 1 · 0 0

Yes. No question. It's not like his plays magically appeared. Of course, there is a possibility that William Shakespeare was his pseudonym, or penname.

2007-03-12 05:18:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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There are NO serious academic historians or experts on English literature of the period that doubt that Shakespeare wrote his plays. The conspiracy theorists are, to man, amateur historians with NO academic qualifications in either field. So, school children don't learn about a fake playwright, they learn about the real one.

2016-04-05 00:25:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Are you kidding? ...Seriously...Jeez...D U H Shakespeare existed...to say he didn't would be like saying the Holocaust didn't happen.

2007-03-11 13:26:16 · answer #10 · answered by Sirius Black 5 · 1 0

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