2007-03-11 10:32:32 · 14 answers · asked by ? 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
I don't know about him, but it appears that Edward II was gay. Which did not, however stop him from fathering some children, from one of whom I am descended. (Which I thought was a fun fact; you never know what will turn up when you do genealogy.)
2007-03-11 10:39:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hang on I`ll ring him up. What a daft question. Just imagine the heart of a loin.
2007-03-11 10:40:47 · answer #2 · answered by Spanner 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
richard the loinheart, might of been but richard the lionheart wasnt
2007-03-11 10:38:14 · answer #3 · answered by TINYTI 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't think the word GAY meant the same then as it does now, then gay meant HAPPY, so yes he was happy /gay.
2007-03-11 10:38:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Possibly. He was married, but never had any children. He was succeeded by his brother John.
2007-03-11 10:51:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2007-03-11 13:09:07 · answer #6 · answered by Sandy Lou 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We can't know for sure, of course, but in scholarly circles it is generally accepted that he was, at the very least, bisexual.
2007-03-11 12:12:32 · answer #7 · answered by Cracea 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who cares?
2007-03-11 10:36:56 · answer #8 · answered by Thumbs down me now 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, he was. But he was forced to have kids to continue the royal blood line.
2007-03-11 10:37:46 · answer #9 · answered by grumpyfiend 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Does it really matter?
2007-03-11 10:36:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋