2007-03-11 09:56:18 · 6 answers · asked by Ariovirgoe 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
No.
2007-03-11 10:02:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, you would be the first person to get them if no one else wanted them. If someone else in the family does and has been with them for a certain amount of time, they can claim the children too. You would have to take them to court about it though.
2007-03-11 19:21:39 · answer #2 · answered by AveGirl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes and no, if the parents are not fit and are a clear danger to the children then child protective services puts them with immediate family. But you have to show were there is a danger.
2007-03-11 17:41:44 · answer #3 · answered by jrgonz454 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You ARE kidding, right? The one who can claim the children is the one WHO SUPPORTS THEM and with whom they LIVE.
2007-03-11 17:59:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
claim them for what?
2007-03-14 14:23:51 · answer #5 · answered by allen w 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no but its a good thought
2007-03-11 17:04:29 · answer #6 · answered by volleyball0993 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋