2007-03-11 03:16:56 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
None
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2007-03-11 03:25:04 · answer #1 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
OK, so I have a bunch of apples and a bunch of friends.
I decide to keep all the apples to myself. Therefore I am giving none of my apples to none of my friends.
Therefore each of my friends gets 0 apples. Fair enough.
Now... If anyone tries to use this stuff to argue that 0/0 = 0 they are going to be laughed out of here. Because the apple story is not, I repeat NOT about 0/0 = 0.
Rather, it is about 0/n = 0 (n being the number of friends I have).
By the way, this is why "giving no apples to none of my friends" is considered bad English. You should say "giving no apples to any of my friends."
2007-03-11 10:51:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NONE. When no division has taken place, how can anyone get any. There is None and Hence Nil. Think twice before you question and use your brain.
2007-03-14 02:57:23 · answer #3 · answered by sr50kandala 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sadly, in this day of man, it would probably result in the apples reconfiscated by authorities being used as evidence in a theft trial.
2007-03-11 10:20:03 · answer #4 · answered by Master Ang Gi Guong 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nothing since there was nothing to get in the first place.
2007-03-11 10:19:16 · answer #5 · answered by annie 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nothing , since there was nothing to get in the first place.
2007-03-14 09:51:16 · answer #6 · answered by irfan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One!
2007-03-11 10:22:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Nothing
2007-03-11 10:33:55 · answer #8 · answered by balakrishnan c 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as many apples each one is having.
2007-03-11 10:57:32 · answer #9 · answered by dpkdrj 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is nothing then it means it is 0 and not infinite.
2007-03-14 09:41:23 · answer #10 · answered by manarshh_jot 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mathematically anything devided by none (Zero) is infinity.
2007-03-11 10:47:50 · answer #11 · answered by Gopalakrishnan P 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋