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The comment in the question say it all really. I have looked into this a bit and understand that not all Scottish Barons get a seat but also do the other Barons have to apply and be accepted into the Lords or go through some process or do they get the seat automatically - some links to the information along with answers would be great.

2007-03-11 00:02:23 · 3 answers · asked by Bogus B 1 in Society & Culture Royalty

3 answers

Scottish titles are different from those in England. Scotland has both lords/ladies *and* barons/baronesses, whereas England only has barons who are commonly called 'lords'.
The Scottish barons are lower than Scottish lords and have never sat in the House of Lords.

Between the Act of Union in 1707 and the 1963 Peerage Act, sixteen Scottish peers (of the rank of lord or higher) sat in the UK House of Lords. The sixteen representatives were chosen by all the Scottish peers every four/five years at the time of general elections, though some Scottish peers had other British titles which enabled them to sit. From 1963 until 1999 all Scottish peers could sit in the Lords.

The only peers excluded from the Lords before 1999 were holders of Irish peerages who had no other British titles. They also had a representative system, similar but not identical to Scotland's (they had 28 elected for life, not 16 elected for a term), but after Irish independence in 1922 no more were elected and the last one died in 1961.

2007-03-11 04:58:04 · answer #1 · answered by Dunrobin 6 · 1 0

Yes they did. Disgusting isn't it? That is what called: Political corruption in the system!!

All the best!/

2007-03-11 00:32:20 · answer #2 · answered by Ebby 6 · 1 1

Huh...?

2007-03-11 00:30:17 · answer #3 · answered by Bubz 1 · 0 2

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