No the victim must undergo a humilating exam to collect evidence.
2007-03-10 18:22:33
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answer #1
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answered by livefree 4
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Where do you live? Because if there is anyplace that does things that way, I'd like to know.
In countries of Western tradition, with a strong Roman Law or Common Law tradition, a crime like rape needs some kind of evidence to be adjudicated, and if it boils down to the woman's word against the accused's, the case will be thrown out for lack of proof and the accused man will go free.
In countries with more traditional leanings, such as in the Middle East, things are even harder for the women, since the word of the man will usually carry more weight, and it usually takes crushing weight of evidence, and probably a woman with extremely strong support from her family, to get a rapist condemned.
So, where do you think a simple statement from the woman is sufficient proof for a court?
2007-03-11 06:22:07
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answer #2
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answered by Svartalf 6
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Um..no. I can BLAME anyone for ANYTHING. BUT... I need to PROVE it or have evidence of it to hold up in court. There are few if any exceptions, if you are referring to the North American court system. In recent years, at least.
If a woman claims this, the man will usually be brought in for questioning, but if there is no evidence, witnesses, etc. there is little chance for conviction. The women is also usually cross-examined to make sure she is telling the truth. Not that women should be made the victims twice, but unfortunately, people have lied about rape.
That is why it is important for women to not shower after a rape, and go straight to the hospital or police.
2007-03-11 03:08:09
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answer #3
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answered by reginachick22 6
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IT is very disputed topic of Law.Under the indian penal code it is covered under section 376 which enacts about the punishment to a rapist on proff of intercourse without consent. Any male person can convicted on the basis of the statement of prosecutrix whteher the other witnesses got hostile.
This right give females wide freedom to rope out any person, without any fault on the behalf of male to take any type of revange. This practises we can see each and every day in the courts. where one lady make allegation on the male about rape.we can also see the news of rape by 50 to 60 year old person which found wrong on the investigation of poloce.
in my submission this right is misused by the females to keep pressure on the male persons to disolve the pre pending disputes between the both parties.Law makers must do something to make this law liberal.If she found wrong than action must be taken against her.
2007-03-11 06:41:19
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answer #4
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answered by gagandeep s 1
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No' never. see the recent judgement of supreme court. the teacher is acquitted the rape charge made by a girl.
2007-03-11 04:06:28
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course not, fool. Before the court, there are incestigations, DNA tests, a long process. How could you believe such crap.
2007-03-11 03:06:34
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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There is no provision for rape in the constitution.it is in the criminal statutes of every state .
2007-03-11 03:17:33
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answer #7
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answered by cesare214 6
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Let's start with what Constitution you are talking about.
Then try, re-writing your question to use complete sentences.
2007-03-11 03:06:44
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answer #8
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answered by coragryph 7
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Innocent till proven guilty.
Need I say more?
2007-03-11 03:09:10
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answer #9
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answered by writersbIock2006 5
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