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Were there certain parts of western europe that wasnt broken up into manors?

I am confused about the whole concept of manorialism.

Was everyone broken up into manors? Where jews working as peasants on the manor as well?

Or where there certain parts of the land that wasnt broken up into kingdoms, and thats where people lived outside of the system?

2007-03-10 03:33:19 · 2 answers · asked by Judi R 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

No not all land was held in feudal tenure. New land (i.e. land newly brought into production) land not suitable for agriculture (i.e. mountainous areas) and certain areas where alternative social systems prevailed as in parts of the Netherlands and the Scottish highland.
Jewish peasants were particularly found in parts of Eastern Europe.

2007-03-10 05:11:33 · answer #1 · answered by CanProf 7 · 0 0

I can't answer your question about manorialism but as for the Jews, they frequently were not allowed to own land at all - either outright or as tenants under the manorial system.
This lead to a concentration of Jews in trades and professions which were independant of landownership altogether - notably various forms of commerce, trade, and professions like medicine which could be undertaken anywhere if, as frequently happened, the Jews were driven out of where they lived. This was assisted by comparatively high levels of literacy.

2007-03-10 04:33:51 · answer #2 · answered by Sairey G 3 · 0 0

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