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26 answers

yes..........always

2007-03-10 02:49:35 · answer #1 · answered by TNL 4 · 0 0

Of course not... as there is no one to hear and the logic of a woman will not misconstrew his words... Therefore he will be right in all cases. Until a woman hears his words.

2007-03-10 10:50:57 · answer #2 · answered by NIck N 5 · 0 0

No! He is not wrong. He just does not have to pretend to be to avoid an emotional argument, devoid of logic with the woman.

2007-03-10 10:53:55 · answer #3 · answered by dudeman 4 · 0 0

I would say he probably didn't speak at all he just thought he did. My husband used to swear he answered me and his lips had not moved---maybe it was telepathy. as the young gal said--they are layers--Ha!

2007-03-10 10:55:06 · answer #4 · answered by lilabner 6 · 0 0

of course. whatever you say shows what you mean. if you say something and there are no women around to hear it, then you're only sheating youself if you catch my drift.

2007-03-10 10:51:17 · answer #5 · answered by MuSiC = LiFe 3 · 0 0

Of course!

2007-03-10 10:49:51 · answer #6 · answered by greyrider 4 · 0 0

Of course.

2007-03-10 10:49:47 · answer #7 · answered by mimegamy 6 · 0 0

Yes.

2007-03-10 10:49:50 · answer #8 · answered by wifey 2 · 0 0

Possibly...

2007-03-10 10:50:24 · answer #9 · answered by dww32720 3 · 0 0

How can he be wrong if there is no-one to hear him?

2007-03-10 10:52:13 · answer #10 · answered by Minxy 5 · 0 0

lol yes of course he is wrong... There are two things wrong with men ...... .. everything they do and everything they say

2007-03-10 10:51:59 · answer #11 · answered by colleen_61_43 1 · 1 0

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