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prove i have no idea how to do these things i have more if your good at these...

2007-03-08 15:02:51 · 2 answers · asked by spunkballa 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

ø is a greek letter i think but i means angle or "X"

2007-03-08 15:13:12 · update #1

2 answers

is this correctly written?
ø=x
I suppose this is:
(1-sinx)/(1+sinx)=(secx-tanx)^2
LHS=[(1-sinx)(1-sinx)]/[(1+sinx)(1-sinx)]
=[(1-sinx)^2]/cos^2x
=[(1-sinx)/cosx]^2
=[1/cosx -sinx/cosx]^2
=(secx-tanx)^2
therefore LHS=RHS

2007-03-08 15:11:01 · answer #1 · answered by Maths Rocks 4 · 0 0

sec(x)-tan(x)= 1/cos(x) - sin(x)/cos(x)
=(1-sin(x))/cos(x)
square this and you get (1-sin(x))^2/cos^2(x)
this equals (1-2sin(x)+sin^2(x))/cos^2(x)
I dont think that what you are trying to prove is actually true.

2007-03-08 23:15:39 · answer #2 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0 0

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