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I need to prove that

sin^2a-sin^4a=cos^2a-cos^4a.

I'm not sure what to do for the first step. If you could give me a hand with that I should be good. Thanks. <><

2007-03-08 11:48:33 · 4 answers · asked by ichthus607 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

The property:

cos^2(x) + sin^2(x) = 1 is useful here.

sin^2a = 1-cos^2a

1-cos^2 a- (1-cos^2a)^2 =
1-cos^2a-1+2cos^2a - cos^4a =
cos^2a - cos^4a

Voila!

2007-03-08 11:53:17 · answer #1 · answered by Aegor R 4 · 0 0

just use the relationship of sin^2a + cos^2a = 1.
thus sin^2a - sin^4a = (1 - cos^2a) - (1 - cos^2a)^2
then do expansion and you will get the right hand side. Thus shown!! ^-^

2007-03-08 11:55:28 · answer #2 · answered by LiNg 2 · 0 0

Notice that:

sin^2(a) - sin^4(a) = sin^2(a) * [1 - sin^2(a)]...same sort of thing for the other side... You should now recognize what 1 - sin^2(a) and 1 - cos^2(a) are ;)

2007-03-08 11:53:05 · answer #3 · answered by Zhuo Zi 3 · 0 0

Factor left side

(sina -sin^2a) - (sina + sin^2a)
(sina -[1-cos^2a]) - (sina+[1-cos^2a])
[1-cos^2a] {(sina -1) - (sina + 1)}

2007-03-08 11:55:12 · answer #4 · answered by richardwptljc 6 · 0 0

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