2007-03-08 07:39:44 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It is all about intent and action. If you take control of his hand and stab the person with the object then, what part of the action do you think clears you? If you drug someone and put them in a car and send them away, knowing that the drug was going to kick in while they were driving, again you committed a murder. You didn't have to be driving the car.
2007-03-08 07:47:57 · answer #1 · answered by El P 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ha ha ha, I think the law should be broad enough for a good lawyer to be able to argue that the knife was coming towards the defendant, and during a struggle the knife went into the victim - 23 times - thereby demonstrating a clear-cut case of self defence, M'lud.
2007-03-09 06:45:49 · answer #2 · answered by Duncan Disorderly 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. To be convicted of a crime, a person must have actus reus and mens rea. They must commit a guilty act and have a guilty mind during commission of the guilty act. You could try to claim self-defense, but use of deadly force is only reasonable if there is belief of immanent death or serious injury. You cannot use deadly force to protect property alone. The weapon has nothing to do with it.
2007-03-08 19:34:31 · answer #3 · answered by britany71004 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes - Any action which intentionally leads to the death of another is murder even if do not push the knife in yourself. Asking someone else to kill for you means you would both be guilty of murder for instance.
2007-03-09 14:06:55 · answer #4 · answered by Adrian F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Murder is intent , manslaughter is not intent but the victim dies.
Self defence is another matter.
If you kill someone in self defence you would still have to go to a Court of Law to prove beyond reasonable doubt that it was self defence.
2007-03-08 15:55:21 · answer #5 · answered by scottie322 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Murder is the unlawful killing of another with malice aforethought.
If the killing was unlawful, meaning no justified reason, then it's murder.
Method really doesn't have any relevance here. But it could be argued that you used their hand as the instrumentality causing their death.
2007-03-08 15:46:08 · answer #6 · answered by Peter 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2007-03-08 15:42:32 · answer #7 · answered by Beau Brummell 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Pisssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssss Head
Think you have saw dust between your ears or you think everyone else does.
2007-03-08 15:43:41 · answer #8 · answered by Jewel 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can't stop laughing - that is the funniest thing I have heard for some time.
2007-03-08 15:45:13 · answer #9 · answered by Bexs 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, intent is what counts not the weapon used.
2007-03-08 15:50:13 · answer #10 · answered by Huh? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋