a=b b=c therefore a=c . get it? i do.
2007-03-08 04:19:32 · 16 answers · asked by Andiekris 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
Nope. If A=B, & B=C, that doesn't mean A=C. C could equal all the rest of the alphabet, (hypothetically) & that would mean that A did as well. Seems more an apples & oranges thing to me. Not as simple as it first might appear. Sort of like, since dogs have four legs, all animals with four legs are dogs. You think?
EDIT: peachyke introduced NUMBERS, & in this case, it makes sense. But some of the comparisons made just don't apply at all to the A-B-C thing.
2007-03-09 15:59:38 · answer #1 · answered by Valac Gypsy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, as if a=6, then b=6, because a=b. And if b=6, and b=c, then c=6, too. A=B=C!!
2007-03-08 16:12:03 · answer #2 · answered by peachykeen1617 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
But what if b were to rebel and become something that was not equal to a or c, but a and c were still equal? Would you still get it?
Maybe, maybe not, but besides would still be spelled incorrectly.
2007-03-08 14:35:24 · answer #3 · answered by Unexpectedly George 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as wells as c=s becides=besides ? haha get it? i did.
2007-03-08 14:18:03 · answer #4 · answered by 070907_NF 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Because I=Me, Me=Myself, Myself=I. :P
2007-03-08 14:13:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes cos its like a loop
they're all the same number
2007-03-09 00:45:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes child, it's elementary algebra.
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2007-03-09 05:44:43 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-03-08 13:43:57 · answer #8 · answered by watanake 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Apparently they are all the same number.
2007-03-08 12:33:17 · answer #9 · answered by sublime1973 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Apparantly c=s as well huh?
2007-03-08 12:27:26 · answer #10 · answered by Captor of Sin 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋