2007-03-08 01:54:27 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
You prove this using numbers to base 3, in which
11 denotes 1*3^1 + 1*3^0
2007-03-08 02:02:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's only true in base 3.
The "base" is what you count in. Base 10 is our usual counting set.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Base 2, also known as binary, counts like this:
0 1 10 11 100 101 110 111
In base 3, however, you would count like this:
1, 2, 10, 11, 12, 20, 21, 22, 30, 31, 32.
So, 2 + 2 in base 3 would be the 4th number in the base 3 sequence, which is 11.
2007-03-08 02:06:36 · answer #2 · answered by Rate 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0*(2+2)=0*11; simplifying 0's you get
2+2=11
Buuuuuuuuuut
It is a false proof since multiplication is an intergral domain and you cannot divide 0 by 0
so, 2+2 does not equal 11
2007-03-08 02:05:18 · answer #3 · answered by lastdemocratalive 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
u cannot prove something which is not right.
2007-03-08 02:06:21 · answer #4 · answered by Twarita 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Can Einstein prove it, if he does I will
2007-03-08 01:59:56 · answer #5 · answered by A New Life 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that's just like saying prove this chair doesn't exist...what chair?
2007-03-08 02:06:05 · answer #6 · answered by sequalofdecay 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
do your own homework.
2007-03-08 01:57:59 · answer #7 · answered by ashalarocks 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
this is not math
2007-03-08 02:01:24 · answer #8 · answered by .R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋