the amount of poverty observed? Is there a country where this is an exception? Or is this an absurd generalization that cant really be measured?
2007-03-08 00:43:28 · 2 answers · asked by older,much wiser 1 in Social Science ➔ Economics
It actually IS measured; the UN measures a "corruption" index based on things like how many bribes it takes to file basic paperwork, etc.
And there certainly is a positive correlation between the two. Check out one of William Easterly's books for a couple of chapters of this subject; one of his books I recommend is "The Elusive Quest for Growth"
2007-03-08 00:54:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is quite difficult to measure the relationship between degree of corruption and the country's poverty.
But if many people in the country is corrupt it will jeopardize the country growth, especially the corruption is occur among the leaders. The money is supposed to use for the development is being used for some personal reason.
2007-03-08 09:04:36 · answer #2 · answered by Carol T 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋