Well at least 3 of them are boys
so the probability of her having 3 boys would be equal to one. So the last child has a 1/2 chance being a boy and 1/2 chance being a girl, so since we know she has at least 3 boys, there is a 1/2 chance that she has 4 boys.
2007-03-07 22:25:53
·
answer #1
·
answered by hey mickey you're so fine 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
3 in 4
2007-03-07 22:28:44
·
answer #2
·
answered by amber 5
·
0⤊
1⤋
Amazing - everybody got this one wrong!
There are 16 possible combinations to have 4 children, but only 5 of them include at least 3 boys:
GBBB, BGBB, BBGB, BBBG, BBBB
Since only one of these is 4 boys, odds are 20%
2007-03-07 22:41:40
·
answer #3
·
answered by pjjuster 2
·
3⤊
0⤋
its 1/2 or 50%,
based up on the fact that the only variable is the last child. And that if you have a child itsa 50/50 chance. Realistically i think you are ever so slightly more likely to have a girl....
:-)
2007-03-07 22:24:02
·
answer #4
·
answered by Peter H 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
that's the Chairforce. do you already know a thank you to sit down down in a chair all day long without might desire to do any actual undertaking? in case you will do this, then you particularly'll have the means to circulate ordinary education. All jokes aside, in my protection stress ordinary education, approximately 25 persons "flunked" out of 150 persons. So, a million in 6 "failed". The Airforce is far less puzzling. So, could be approximately a million in 10 could "fail".
2016-09-30 09:24:00
·
answer #5
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
This is somewhat reminiscent of the "Monte Hall pick a door"quandary of a few years back....very interesting and not as obvious as it might originally seem.Kudos to "PJJUSTER"
2007-03-08 01:18:13
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋