1.Three
2. One
3. Not Qualify
4. Two
2007-03-07 18:20:57 · 9 answers · asked by Tiwari 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ Other - Football
3. not qualify coz FIFA banned them from taking part in 1950 FIFA World Cup finals in BRAZIL.
2007-03-08 01:19:37 · answer #1 · answered by foongwk140804 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
India had qualified for the world cup only once but that was in 1950 and they did not get the permission to even play without proper footwear.
2007-03-07 19:26:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
India qualified once, in 1950, but were not allowed to compete because some players refused to wear shoes.
2007-03-07 18:26:38 · answer #3 · answered by jizdepski 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
India qualified once for the WC finals in 1950 (brazil), but the players were only used to play barefooted,and couldn't adapt to cleats. Subsequently,FIFA didn't allow them to play.
2007-03-07 19:40:41 · answer #4 · answered by Abijith 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is for cricket it is 4.two, 1983 and 2003
if it is for football 3.Not qualify
2007-03-07 18:43:39 · answer #5 · answered by tdrajagopal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
two times
2007-03-07 20:46:34 · answer #6 · answered by micho 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
two
2007-03-07 18:29:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 IN 1950 BUT NOT ALLOWED TO COMPLETE CUASE THEY HAD NO FOOTY BOOTS AND WHERE NOT ALLOWED TO PLAY BAREFOOT
2007-03-07 20:05:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
two times
1.1983
2.2003
2007-03-07 18:35:30 · answer #9 · answered by swapnil 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋