where does it say "separation of church and state"?
why do folks keep turning to that phrase to get prayer out of schools and carols out of school plays?
as far as i know we only have "CONGRESS shall make no law concerning the establishment of RELIGION"
to me this means that congress cannot limit prayer or school plays with Christmas carols.
what say you folks?
2007-03-07 13:22:38 · 6 answers · asked by You Ask & I Answer!!! 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
In the original Bill of Rights it says
Article III
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
2007-03-08 07:22:56 · answer #1 · answered by Wolfman Dan 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
it do not use those exact wording, but the wording used means that. The 1st Amendment states that "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof", meaning that congress/the goverment can not interfere with churches.
2007-03-07 21:52:16 · answer #2 · answered by Rich C 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I have no problem with Christmas carols because that is part of a national holiday but why does someone have to pray in at school? You're at school to learn not to pray. And you've got many hours to pray before or after school. The last thing I want is to have some Muslism praying five times on day in the middle of the classroom floor.
2007-03-07 21:28:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
People cannot have a freedom of religion (as guaranteed by the Constitution) as long as they are forcibly exposed to religious exercise -- this includes school prayer and Christmas carols. You can pray or worship as you please -- just keep it away from me.
2007-03-07 21:50:03 · answer #4 · answered by HalJor 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You cannot have both the Establishment Clause and Freedom of Religion without a seperation of Church and State.
It doesn't have to say it--it is implicit to the First Amendment.
2007-03-08 03:06:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
You have answered your own question.....
"Congress shall make no law CONCERNING the ESTABLISHMENT of religion."
What part of that do you not understand.
2007-03-08 00:18:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋