between saying "i have been TO France" and "i have been IN France"
Is it a big difference in the prepositions? i get confused very much with them, lol...
i´m sorry i´m foreigner and i would like to know...
thanks!
2007-03-07 04:16:46 · 20 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
I don't think there is too much of a difference.
However, I have been TO France suggests that you are no longer in France (I have been to France many times).
I have been IN France suggests that you are still in France (I have been in France for six months).
But I wouldn't worry about it. People will understand either way.
EDIT: Ignore Capricious Capricorn, who is completely wrong.
2007-03-07 04:25:10 · answer #1 · answered by mcfifi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
We say have you ever been to France? Yes I have been to France. I went to France last year. When I was in France I drank some wine. While I was in France, I stayed in a hotel. And then we say I have been to France 3 times. ect.
J'espere que vous amusez vous bien avec cette langue! Je suis Anglais mais j'aime bien la France. Bonne chance!
Hope This Helps Lots Of Luck - HTH LOL!!
2007-03-07 12:27:36 · answer #2 · answered by R.E.M.E. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both of these are correct depending on the context of the sentence around them!!!!
For example:
I went TO France and while IN France I visited Paris.
2007-03-07 15:06:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You would say "I have been to france before" in answer to the question "have you ever been to france?"
You would say "I have been in france" in answer to the question "where have you been?"
sorry I do not know how to explain the difference fully!
2007-03-07 12:26:36 · answer #4 · answered by billy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If somebody said to me "I have been TO France for 2 weeks" I would think that they had now returned home.
If they said "I have been IN France for 2 weeks" it would suggest to me that they were still there.
Hope this helps.
2007-03-08 06:46:11 · answer #5 · answered by Gail H 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I can't vouch for other people, but when I say, "I have been TO France", I mean I stayed in the country more then overnight. If I say, "I have been IN France", I mean that Ihave traveled through the country.
2007-03-07 12:21:28 · answer #6 · answered by vospire s 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To be honest I have been in France is poor grammar. To imply that you have been in france means that you are currently in France. To imply that you have been to france means that you are not in france but you have been there.
So I suppose it depends where you are when you say it. The opposite would sound like this:- I have lived to france for many years. When you should say I have lived in france for many years.
to sounds much better. Consider this. I have been to franc emany times. (Correct) - I have been in France many times. (sounds terrible).
2007-03-07 12:43:07 · answer #7 · answered by youronmyfoot 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They both do sound alike, however "I have been TO France" means you have been there before/visited, and "I have been IN France" means either you lived there/just been there recently.
Read carefully, and remember well... :)
2007-03-07 12:27:49 · answer #8 · answered by L. 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there isnt a difference its all the same either way youve been 2 france lol
2007-03-07 12:22:05 · answer #9 · answered by Tamy T 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They both mean the same thing, as far as I can tell. "I have been to France" sounds like the proper way to say it, though.
2007-03-07 12:21:27 · answer #10 · answered by me_myself_&_eye 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋