Do all functions have a inverse?

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Do all functions have a inverse?

do all functions have an inverse?

CAN you prove that finding the inverse graphically will always determine the inverse?

2007-03-07 00:17:00 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

3 answers

All functions do not have an inverse.

2007-03-07 00:20:37 · answer #1 · answered by Kimon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

All relations have an inverse. But not all relationships are even functions and the ones which are may have inverses which fail to be functions. In fact, only functions which are injective (one to one) have inverses.

HTH âº

Doug

2007-03-07 00:27:50 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋

The function f(x)=1 for all x, for instance, has no inverse

2007-03-07 00:26:25 · answer #3 · answered by 11:11 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋